Dial Daily Bread

Dear Friends of "Dial Daily Bread":

The question came up in a Bible class: “Why does the Bible say that
‘God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto Himself,’ when the world
has not been reconciled to Him? It’s still in rebellion against Him?”
(2 Cor. 5:19).

That’s profound! If we say that the world was legally “reconciled” by
Christ’s sacrifice on His cross (that’s when “God was in Christ,
reconciling the world”), then the question comes up: “What does it mean
to be ‘legally reconciled’ when experientially the world is not
reconciled?”

(1) If the alienated world were honest and understood what Christ
accomplished, it would be reconciled because that revelation of the
justice and love of God “in Christ” was complete. No lingering question
was left: Christ’s self-emptying love was so total that He “poured out
His soul unto death” (Isa. 53:12), “emptied Himself” like you drain an
empty bottle dry (Phil. 2:7), “tasted death for every man” (cf. Heb.
2:9), and in that way He died the “second death” for the entire world
(cf. Rev. 2:11; 20:14). Therefore He is not “imputing [our] trespasses
unto [us]” (2 Cor. 5:19 again).

(2) That’s enough to “reconcile” any alienated person who is honest!
Therefore, it was an “objective” reconciliation accomplished; the truth
is there waiting for any honest person to see it and believe, and in
that way “BE reconciled.”

(3) The “subjective” reconciliation takes place in the next verse when
you and I “beseech” people, “ministering THE WORD of reconciliation,”
pleading, “Be YE reconciled to God” (2 Cor. 5:20). The “legal” or
“objective” reconciliation then becomes “subjective,” or
“experiential.”

Be sure to check your e-mail for "Dial Daily Bread" again tomorrow.
------------------------------------------------------------------------