Dear Friends of "Dial Daily Bread,"
What does Paul's use of the word "constituted" mean in Young's Literal Translation of Romans 5:15-19, instead of the word "made" in the King James Version?
Here's what Young renders Paul as saying: "So, then, as through one offense to all men it is to condemnation, so also through one declaration of 'Righteous' it is to all men to justification of life; for as through the disobedience of the one man [Adam], the many [all men] were constituted sinners: so also through the obedience of the One [Christ], shall the many [the same all men] be constituted righteous" (vss. 18, 19, Young's Literal).
The sin of Adam did not make "all men" to be actual sinners--that would be "original sin." Adam's fatherhood has not forced anyone to sin! (It could be that the KJV rendering as "made" has led some to think the Bible does teach original sin; but Young's Literal makes clear that we still have freedom of choice. Thank God!)
But it is true that "all have sinned" (Rom. 3:23), except Christ. But He took upon Himself the DNA descent from Adam, yet He proves that inheriting a sinful nature does not force one necessarily to be a sinner in character. Christ was tempted like as we are tempted, but He said "No!" to every temptation (Heb. 4:15; Titus 2:11, 12, New International Version). Adam's sin constituted "all men" under the legal condemnation of sin. Jesus "took" it upon Himself, so He could die.
Likewise, according to Young's Literal, the cross of Christ did not make the same "all men" to be experientially "righteous." It constituted them "righteous" in a legal sense so the Father could send His rain on the just and the unjust alike--so He could treat every person as though he had not sinned. Some call this a "second probation." But God means what He says: no one can keep you out of heaven, except your own perverse choice.
--Robert J. Wieland
From the "Dial Daily Bread" Archive: March 25, 2005.
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